NR602 Final Questions and Correct
Answers/ Latest Update / Already Graded
Which one best describes lesions associated with condyloma
acuminatum?
a. Verruciform
b. Plaque-like
c. Vesicular
d. Bullous
Ans: a
39yo female has completed course of amox for strep throat. LMP was
2wks ago, says it was normal. On exam, there’s erythema of extern.
genitalia w/small amount of white discharge. Micro wet prep reveals
few clue cells, but many budding hyphae. No WBCs. Which one would
be the most appropriate treatment?
a. Metronidazole 500mg BID x7 days
b. OTC hydrocortisone 1% cream TID
c. Fluconazole tabs 150mg x1 dose
d. Erythromycin 500mg TID x10 days
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Ans: c
Woman c/o vaginal itching, white discharge. She is in good health
except for recent abx for strep throat. Pelvic reveals tender
vulvovaginal area w/edema and nonmalodorous white patches. Which
is the most likely cause?
a. Bacterial vaginosis
b. Trichomonas
c. Lactobacillus overgrowth
d. Candidiasis
Ans: d
18yo female c/o secondary amenorrhea. On exam, there is normal
secondary sex characteristics and normal genitalia. Pregnancy is ruled
out. What would necessitate further eval?
a. Elevated blood cholesterol levels
b. Androgen deficiency
c. Galactorrhea
d. Hirsutism
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Ans: c
